MicroIQ · AP Microeconomics
MicroIQ Mock Exam 2 — Full AP Simulation
Coverage: All 6 units (Lessons 1–15) at CED weightings
Format: Full-length AP Microeconomics exam
| Section |
Questions |
Time |
Weight |
| I: Multiple choice |
60 (5 choices) |
70 minutes |
66.7% |
| II: Free response |
1 long + 2 short |
60 minutes (incl. 10-min reading period) |
33.3% |
Rules: Four-function calculator allowed. No guessing penalty — answer all 60. Take Section I and II back-to-back with only the built-in reading period, exactly like exam day.
Scoring worksheet (end of key): MC 1 pt each (60) × 1.0 + FRQ points × 3.0 (30) → composite out of 90.
Calibration: 68+ ≈ 5 · 55–67 ≈ 4 · 42–54 ≈ 3.
SECTION I: Multiple Choice (70 minutes)
Question 1
In every economic system, scarcity requires that societies decide:
- (A) how to eliminate opportunity costs
- (B) how to make all goods free
- (C) what to produce, how to produce it, and for whom
- (D) how to equalize incomes
- (E) how to maximize government revenue
1. (C) The three fundamental questions forced by scarcity.
Question 2
Jordan values an evening coding side-project at $90. His alternatives were a $60 tutoring session or a movie he values at $25. The opportunity cost of the side-project is:
- (A) $60
- (B) $85
- (C) $90
- (D) $25
- (E) $150
2. (A) Next-best forgone alternative = the $60 tutoring session. Not $85 (don't add), not $90 (that's the chosen option's value).
Question 3
A production possibilities curve is bowed out from the origin because:
- (A) technology improves along the curve
- (B) resources are unemployed at interior points
- (C) opportunity costs are constant
- (D) some resources are idle
- (E) resources are not equally suited to producing both goods
3. (E) Specialized resources → increasing opportunity costs → concave PPC.
Question 4
An economy moves from a point inside its PPC to a point on the PPC. This is best described as:
- (A) economic growth
- (B) fuller employment of existing resources
- (C) an outward shift of the curve
- (D) increasing opportunity cost
- (E) a technological improvement
4. (B) Inside → onto the curve = putting idle resources to work; the curve itself never moved.
Question 5
Compared with choosing a consumer-goods-heavy point on its PPC, an economy choosing a capital-goods-heavy point will most likely experience:
- (A) an immediate outward shift of the PPC
- (B) slower future growth
- (C) a movement inside the curve
- (D) a larger outward shift of the future PPC
- (E) constant opportunity costs
5. (D) More capital today builds productive capacity → future PPC shifts out farther.
Question 6
With the same resources, Vex makes 50 chips or 25 boards; Wren makes 12 chips or 10 boards. Comparative advantage lies with:
- (A) Vex in chips, Wren in boards
- (B) Vex in both goods
- (C) Wren in chips, Vex in boards
- (D) Wren in both goods
- (E) neither — costs are identical
6. (A) Vex: 1 board = 2 chips; Wren: 1 board = 1.2 chips → Wren's boards are cheaper; Vex's chips (½ board) beat Wren's (5/6 board).
Question 7
From question 6, a mutually beneficial rate of exchange is:
- (A) 1 board for 3 chips
- (B) 1 board for 1 chip
- (C) 1 board for 1.5 chips
- (D) 1 chip for 2 boards
- (E) 1 board for 5 chips
7. (C) Board price must lie between 1.2 (Wren's cost) and 2 chips (Vex's cost) → 1.5 works. (A) and (E) exceed Vex's cost; (B) is below Wren's.
Question 8
Hours per unit: Pia needs 2 h per vase, 8 h per lamp; Quon needs 3 h per vase, 6 h per lamp. Comparative advantage lies with:
- (A) Pia in lamps, Quon in vases
- (B) Pia in both
- (C) Quon in both
- (D) neither producer in either good
- (E) Pia in vases, Quon in lamps
8. (E) Per 24 h: Pia 12 vases or 3 lamps (1 lamp = 4 vases); Quon 8 vases or 4 lamps (1 lamp = 2 vases). Quon's lamps cheaper; Pia's vases cheaper (¼ lamp < ½ lamp).
Question 9
Sneakers are a normal good. A recession lowers consumer incomes. In the sneaker market:
- (A) supply shifts left; price rises
- (B) demand shifts left; price and quantity fall
- (C) quantity demanded falls along the demand curve
- (D) demand shifts right; price rises
- (E) the market stays in the original equilibrium
9. (B) Income ↓ + normal good → demand left → P ↓, Q ↓. (C) is the movement-along trap.
Question 10
In the market for avocados, a new harvesting robot cuts costs while a viral diet trend boosts demand. Equilibrium quantity will __ and equilibrium price will ____.
- (A) rise; rise
- (B) fall; fall
- (C) rise; fall
- (D) be indeterminate; rise
- (E) rise; be indeterminate
10. (E) Supply right (P↓, Q↑) + demand right (P↑, Q↑) → Q rises; P depends on magnitudes.
Question 11
Qd = 200 − 5P; Qs = 40 + 3P. Equilibrium price and quantity are:
- (A) P = 30, Q = 50
- (B) P = 25, Q = 75
- (C) P = 15, Q = 100
- (D) P = 20, Q = 100
- (E) P = 10, Q = 150
11. (D) 200 − 5P = 40 + 3P → 160 = 8P → P = 20; Q = 200 − 100 = 100. Check: 40 + 60 = 100 ✓.
Question 12
At a price above equilibrium, a competitive market exhibits:
- (A) a surplus, and price will fall toward equilibrium
- (B) a shortage, and price will rise
- (C) a surplus that persists indefinitely
- (D) a shortage that persists indefinitely
- (E) equilibrium at a new higher quantity
12. (A) Above equilibrium: Qs > Qd = surplus → price falls.
Question 13
Using the midpoint method, when price rises from $8 to $12 and quantity demanded falls from 130 to 70, demand is:
- (A) unit elastic
- (B) inelastic, with elasticity 0.67
- (C) elastic, with elasticity 1.5
- (D) elastic, with elasticity 2.5
- (E) perfectly elastic
13. (C) %ΔQ = −60/100 = −60%; %ΔP = 4/10 = 40%; |PED| = 60/40 = 1.5 → elastic.
Question 14
A streaming service raises its subscription price 15% and its total revenue rises. Over this range, demand is:
- (A) elastic
- (B) inelastic
- (C) unit elastic
- (D) perfectly elastic
- (E) income elastic
14. (B) Price ↑ and TR ↑ → inelastic (price effect dominates).
Question 15
The cross-price elasticity of demand between goods R and S is +1.8. R and S are:
- (A) complements
- (B) inferior goods
- (C) luxuries
- (D) substitutes
- (E) unrelated
15. (D) Positive cross-price elasticity → substitutes.
Question 16
Supply is most price-elastic:
- (A) over a long time horizon, when producers can fully adjust all inputs
- (B) in the immediate market period
- (C) when inputs are impossible to obtain
- (D) for goods that spoil instantly
- (E) when production capacity is fixed
16. (A) Time to adjust all inputs (and for entry) makes supply responsive.
Question 17
A binding price ceiling causes deadweight loss because:
- (A) producers earn too much surplus
- (B) the government collects tax revenue
- (C) quantity rises above the efficient level
- (D) demand becomes perfectly inelastic
- (E) mutually beneficial transactions between Qs and Q* no longer occur
17. (E) Trades between the ceiling quantity and Q* had WTP > cost but can't legally happen at the capped price.
Question 18
A binding price floor is imposed in a competitive market. The quantity actually traded equals:
- (A) the quantity supplied at the floor price
- (B) the equilibrium quantity
- (C) the quantity demanded at the floor price
- (D) the average of quantity supplied and demanded
- (E) zero
18. (C) Floor above equilibrium → buyers are the short side → Qd rules.
Question 19
A per-unit tax is levied on sellers of a good for which demand is much more inelastic than supply. The burden of the tax falls:
- (A) entirely on sellers
- (B) mostly on buyers
- (C) equally on both sides by law
- (D) entirely on the government
- (E) mostly on sellers
19. (B) The relatively inelastic side (here buyers) bears more of any tax, regardless of legal incidence.
Question 20
A $4 per-unit tax reduces equilibrium quantity from 220 to 180. Deadweight loss equals:
- (A) $880
- (B) $720
- (C) $160
- (D) $80
- (E) $400
20. (D) DWL = ½ × ΔQ × tax = ½ × 40 × 4 = $80. (C) forgets the ½; (B) is revenue.
Question 21
Demand: P = 40 − Q; supply: P = 10 + 2Q. Equilibrium is Q = 10, P = 30. Consumer surplus equals:
- (A) $50
- (B) $100
- (C) $200
- (D) $25
- (E) $300
21. (A) Demand intercept $40. CS = ½ × 10 × (40 − 30) = $50.
Question 22
Gum costs $1 per pack and juice costs $2 per bottle. A utility-maximizing consumer with income fully spent is consuming where MU of gum = 6. The MU of juice must be:
- (A) 3
- (B) 6
- (C) 2
- (D) 4
- (E) 12
22. (E) MUg/Pg = 6/1 = 6 must equal MUj/Pj = MUj/2 → MUj = 12.
Question 23
Total utility: 0, 30, 54, 72, 84, 90 for quantities 0–5. Marginal utility of the 3rd unit is:
- (A) 24
- (B) 72
- (C) 18
- (D) 12
- (E) 6
23. (C) TU(3) − TU(2) = 72 − 54 = 18.
Question 24
The law of diminishing marginal returns applies:
- (A) only in the long run
- (B) in the short run, when at least one input is fixed
- (C) only to capital inputs
- (D) when all inputs change proportionally
- (E) only in perfectly competitive markets
24. (B) Diminishing returns is a short-run law — it needs a fixed input to crowd.
Question 25
Total product with 1, 2, 3, 4 workers: 18, 40, 56, 66. The marginal product of the 3rd worker is:
- (A) 56
- (B) 22
- (C) 18.67
- (D) 16
- (E) 10
Question 26
A firm's total cost is $300 at 10 units and $342 at 12 units. Marginal cost per unit over this range is:
- (A) $21
- (B) $42
- (C) $30
- (D) $28.50
- (E) $14
26. (A) ΔTC/ΔQ = 42/2 = $21.
Question 27
Which per-unit cost curve declines continuously as output rises?
- (A) MC
- (B) ATC
- (C) AFC
- (D) AVC
- (E) all of them
27. (C) AFC = TFC/Q → falls forever; the others turn upward.
Question 28
At every output level, ATC minus AVC equals:
- (A) MC
- (B) TFC
- (C) profit per unit
- (D) AP
- (E) AFC
28. (E) ATC = AVC + AFC → the gap is AFC (shrinking but positive).
Question 29
The MC curve intersects:
- (A) AFC at its minimum
- (B) both AVC and ATC at their minimum points
- (C) ATC at its maximum
- (D) the demand curve at equilibrium
- (E) AVC at its maximum
29. (B) The average-marginal rule: MC pulls each average to its minimum crossing point.
Question 30
The long run is distinguished from the short run by:
- (A) a duration of more than one year
- (B) the presence of diminishing returns
- (C) constant technology
- (D) all inputs being variable, including plant size, with entry and exit possible
- (E) fixed output prices
30. (D) All inputs variable + entry/exit possible — capability, not calendar.
Question 31
A firm doubles all inputs and its output more than doubles, lowering average cost. The firm is experiencing:
- (A) economies of scale
- (B) diminishing marginal returns
- (C) diseconomies of scale
- (D) constant returns to scale
- (E) allocative efficiency
31. (A) Output rising more than proportionally to inputs → falling LRATC → economies of scale.
Question 32
Revenue $400,000; explicit costs $250,000; forgone salary $120,000; forgone investment income $10,000. Economic profit is:
- (A) $150,000
- (B) $30,000
- (C) $20,000
- (D) $130,000
- (E) −$20,000
32. (C) Economic profit = 400k − 250k − 130k implicit = $20,000.
Question 33
A perfectly competitive firm is a price taker because:
- (A) the government sets its price
- (B) it colludes with rivals
- (C) its product is differentiated
- (D) consumers are ignorant of prices
- (E) it is too small a part of the market to influence price, and products are identical
33. (E) Tiny market share + identical products → no pricing power.
Question 34
For a perfectly competitive firm, price equals:
- (A) ATC at every output
- (B) marginal revenue and average revenue
- (C) marginal cost at every output
- (D) AVC in long-run equilibrium
- (E) AFC plus AVC
34. (B) Horizontal firm demand: P = MR = AR. P = MC only at the chosen output (not everywhere), so (C) is wrong.
Question 35
A competitive firm produces 400 units where MR = MC. Price is $9 and ATC at that output is $6.50. Economic profit is:
- (A) $2,600
- (B) $3,600
- (C) $400
- (D) $1,000
- (E) zero
35. (D) (9 − 6.50) × 400 = $1,000.
Question 36
Price is $5; the firm's minimum AVC is $6 and minimum ATC is $8. In the short run the firm should:
- (A) shut down, because price does not cover variable costs at any output
- (B) produce where MR = MC at a loss
- (C) produce at minimum ATC
- (D) raise its price
- (E) produce where P = AVC
36. (A) P ($5) < min AVC ($6): production can't cover even variable cost → shut down; loss = TFC.
Question 37
Perfectly competitive firms are earning positive economic profits. As the industry moves to long-run equilibrium:
- (A) demand shifts right and profits grow
- (B) firms exit and price rises
- (C) firms enter, supply shifts right, price falls, and economic profit is eliminated
- (D) profits persist because of barriers
- (E) ATC curves shift upward for all firms
37. (C) The entry mechanism, run to its zero-profit endpoint.
Question 38
A single-price monopolist's marginal revenue curve lies below its demand curve because:
- (A) barriers to entry raise marginal cost
- (B) selling an additional unit requires lowering price on all previous units
- (C) monopolists produce where demand is inelastic
- (D) fixed costs are high
- (E) the firm is a price taker
38. (B) The price cut on all prior units drags MR below P.
Question 39
A monopolist's MR = MC at 60 units. At 60 units, the demand curve reads $22, MC reads $10, and ATC reads $14. The profit-maximizing price is:
- (A) $10
- (B) $14
- (C) $12
- (D) $22
- (E) $16
39. (D) Quantity from MR = MC; price from the demand curve: $22.
Question 40
Relative to a perfectly competitive industry with identical costs, a single-price monopoly:
- (A) produces less, charges more, and creates deadweight loss
- (B) produces more at lower cost
- (C) achieves allocative efficiency
- (D) earns zero long-run profit
- (E) sets price equal to marginal cost
40. (A) Restrict, raise, and lose surplus — the monopoly signature.
Question 41
The deadweight loss from monopoly equals:
- (A) the monopolist's economic profit
- (B) consumer surplus transferred to the firm
- (C) total fixed costs
- (D) government revenue forgone
- (E) the surplus lost on units between the monopoly output and the output where P = MC
41. (E) DWL = surplus on the unproduced units between Qm and the P = MC output. (A)/(B) are transfers, not losses.
Question 42
Which condition is NOT required for price discrimination?
- (A) market power
- (B) ability to segment customers by willingness to pay
- (C) constant marginal cost
- (D) prevention of resale
- (E) differing price elasticities among buyer groups
42. (C) Power, segmentation, no-resale (and differing elasticities to exploit) are needed; MC shape is irrelevant.
Question 43
Under perfect price discrimination, compared with single-price monopoly:
- (A) output falls and DWL grows
- (B) output rises to the efficient level, DWL disappears, and consumer surplus is zero
- (C) consumer surplus is maximized
- (D) price is uniform across buyers
- (E) the firm produces where MR = 0
43. (B) D becomes MR → produce to WTP = MC: efficient output, zero DWL, zero CS.
Question 44
A regulator sets a natural monopoly's price where demand intersects ATC. This "fair-return" price results in:
- (A) allocative efficiency
- (B) a subsidy requirement
- (C) maximum monopoly profit
- (D) zero economic profit for the firm
- (E) zero deadweight loss
44. (D) P = ATC → total revenue = total cost → normal profit; some DWL remains (not A/E).
Question 45
If instead the regulator sets price where demand intersects MC (socially optimal), the natural monopoly:
- (A) incurs a loss, because ATC is still falling and exceeds MC at that output
- (B) earns positive economic profit
- (C) breaks even exactly
- (D) produces less than the unregulated amount
- (E) must shut down immediately in all cases
45. (A) With ATC still declining, MC < ATC → P = MC < ATC → per-unit losses → subsidy needed.
Question 46
In long-run equilibrium, a monopolistically competitive firm operates where:
- (A) P = MC = minimum ATC
- (B) P > ATC, earning economic profit
- (C) MR = MC and P < AVC
- (D) demand is perfectly elastic
- (E) demand is tangent to ATC, with P = ATC > MC and zero economic profit
46. (E) Tangency equilibrium: zero economic profit but P > MC and excess capacity.
Question 47
"Excess capacity" in monopolistic competition refers to production:
- (A) beyond minimum ATC
- (B) at minimum ATC
- (C) below the output that would minimize ATC
- (D) where MC exceeds price
- (E) at maximum physical capacity
47. (C) Tangency on ATC's downslope → output short of min-ATC scale.
Questions 48 uses this payoff matrix. Two firms choose High or Low output; payoffs (Firm X, Firm Y):
|
Y: Low |
Y: High |
| X: Low |
(12, 12) |
(4, 16) |
| X: High |
(16, 4) |
(6, 6) |
Question 48
Which statement is correct?
- (A) X's dominant strategy is Low
- (B) High is dominant for both firms, and (High, High) is the Nash equilibrium
- (C) the Nash equilibrium is (Low, Low)
- (D) Y has no dominant strategy
- (E) there is no Nash equilibrium
48. (B) X: vs. Low, 16 > 12; vs. High, 6 > 4 → High dominant. Symmetric for Y. (High, High) = (6, 6): neither gains by unilateral switch (6 → 4).
Question 49
The demand for airline pilots is derived from:
- (A) pilots' union wages
- (B) the supply of flight schools
- (C) government licensing rules
- (D) consumer demand for air travel
- (E) the marginal cost of jet fuel
49. (D) Factor demand is derived from the product market — here, passenger travel.
Question 50
A competitive firm sells output at $6. The 5th worker raises output from 80 to 92 units. The MRP of the 5th worker is:
- (A) $72
- (B) $480
- (C) $552
- (D) $12
- (E) $6
50. (A) MP₅ = 92 − 80 = 12 units; MRP = 12 × $6 = $72.
Question 51
A firm hiring in a competitive labor market should employ additional workers until:
- (A) marginal product is zero
- (B) total output is maximized
- (C) MRP equals the market wage
- (D) MRP equals price
- (E) the wage equals AFC
51. (C) Hire until MRP = wage (MFC in a competitive labor market).
Question 52
Which event shifts the demand curve for warehouse workers to the right?
- (A) a rise in warehouse wages
- (B) a fall in the price of the goods the warehouses ship
- (C) a fall in warehouse wages
- (D) new machines that fully replace workers
- (E) an increase in the productivity of warehouse workers
52. (E) Productivity ↑ → MRP ↑ → labor demand right. (A)/(C) are movements along; (B)/(D) shift left.
Question 53
Compared with a competitive labor market, a monopsony employer:
- (A) hires more workers at a higher wage
- (B) hires fewer workers at a wage below marginal revenue product
- (C) hires the same number at a lower wage
- (D) pays a wage equal to MFC
- (E) faces a horizontal labor supply curve
53. (B) Monopsony: MRP = MFC at lower L, wage read off supply — below MRP.
Question 54
MP of labor = 30, wage = $10; MP of capital = 60, rental = $30. To minimize costs the firm should:
- (A) use more capital and less labor
- (B) keep the current mix
- (C) use less of both inputs
- (D) use more labor and less capital
- (E) set MP of labor equal to MP of capital
54. (D) Labor: 30/10 = 3 per $; capital: 60/30 = 2 per $ → shift toward labor until ratios equalize.
Question 55
In an unregulated market with a negative production externality, relative to the social optimum:
- (A) output is too high because producers ignore external costs
- (B) output is too low because MSB exceeds MPB
- (C) price is too high and output too low
- (D) the market produces the efficient quantity
- (E) deadweight loss is zero
55. (A) Producers equate MPB with MPC, ignoring the external cost → overproduction.
Question 56
To move a market with a $9 per-unit external cost to the socially optimal output, the government should impose:
- (A) a price ceiling $9 below equilibrium
- (B) a lump-sum tax on the industry
- (C) a per-unit tax of $9
- (D) a per-unit subsidy of $9
- (E) an outright ban
56. (C) Pigouvian tax = marginal external cost → MPC rises to MSC → market picks Qopt.
Question 57
Flu vaccinations confer benefits on non-vaccinated neighbors. The market outcome and appropriate remedy are:
- (A) overconsumption; per-unit tax
- (B) efficient consumption; no action
- (C) overconsumption; price floor
- (D) underconsumption; binding price ceiling
- (E) underconsumption; per-unit subsidy equal to the marginal external benefit
57. (E) Positive externality → underconsumption → subsidize by the external benefit per unit.
Question 58
A good is non-rival and non-excludable. Private markets will:
- (A) supply it efficiently
- (B) underprovide it because of free riders
- (C) overprovide it because of external costs
- (D) provide it only to high-income consumers
- (E) provide it at zero cost
58. (B) Non-excludability → free riding → voluntary payment collapses → underprovision.
Question 59
Overuse of a common resource such as an open fishing ground occurs because the resource is:
- (A) non-rival and excludable
- (B) non-rival and non-excludable
- (C) provided by government
- (D) rival and non-excludable
- (E) rival and excludable
59. (D) Rival + non-excludable = commons → tragedy of overuse.
Question 60
If a country's Lorenz curve moves closer to the 45-degree line, then:
- (A) income inequality has decreased and the Gini coefficient has fallen
- (B) income inequality has increased
- (C) the Gini coefficient has risen toward 1
- (D) average income has necessarily fallen
- (E) the poorest quintile's income share has fallen
60. (A) Closer to the diagonal = more equal = smaller area A = lower Gini.
MC scoring note: Answer distribution: A×13, B×12, C×12, D×12, E×11 — no letter-clustering.
SECTION II: Free Response (60 minutes, including 10-minute reading period)
FRQ 1 (Long — ~25 minutes)
PharmaCorp is the single-price monopoly producer of the patented allergy drug Zephyr.
(a) Draw a correctly labeled graph for PharmaCorp showing demand, marginal revenue, marginal cost, and average total cost. Assume PharmaCorp earns positive economic profit. On your graph, label:
(i) the profit-maximizing quantity Qm and price Pm
(ii) the area of economic profit (shade or clearly identify)
(iii) the socially optimal (allocatively efficient) quantity Qe
(b) Shade or clearly identify the area of deadweight loss and explain why it exists at Qm.
(c) Is PharmaCorp producing on the elastic or inelastic portion of its demand curve at Qm? Explain how you know.
(d) The government levies a one-time lump-sum license fee (a fixed cost) on PharmaCorp.
(i) What happens to PharmaCorp's profit-maximizing quantity and price? Explain.
(ii) What happens to PharmaCorp's economic profit?
(e) Suppose instead the patent expires and the market becomes perfectly competitive with identical cost conditions. State what happens to output, price, and deadweight loss.
FRQ 2 (Short — ~12 minutes)
Baxter Farms sells corn in a perfectly competitive product market at $5 per bushel and hires workers in a perfectly competitive labor market at a wage of $130 per day.
| Workers |
Bushels per day |
| 1 |
50 |
| 2 |
90 |
| 3 |
122 |
| 4 |
146 |
| 5 |
162 |
(a) Calculate the marginal revenue product of the third worker. Show your work.
(b) How many workers will Baxter Farms hire? Explain using the profit-maximizing hiring rule.
(c) The price of corn rises to $7.50 per bushel, the wage unchanged. Will Baxter hire more, fewer, or the same number of workers? Justify with a calculation.
(d) On a correctly labeled graph of the labor market for farm workers, show the effect of the corn-price increase on the market wage and employment.
FRQ 3 (Short — ~12 minutes)
The two dominant firms in the smartwatch market, Chrono and Tempo, each choose to price High or Low. The payoff matrix shows daily profits in thousands (Chrono, Tempo):
|
Tempo: High |
Tempo: Low |
| Chrono: High |
(40, 40) |
(10, 52) |
| Chrono: Low |
(52, 10) |
(18, 18) |
(a) Identify Chrono's dominant strategy, if any. Justify with the relevant payoff comparisons.
(b) Identify the Nash equilibrium of this game. Explain why neither firm would deviate from it.
(c) The two firms sign a secret agreement to both price High. Explain, using specific payoffs, why each firm has an incentive to cheat on the agreement.
(d) Is the outcome you identified in (b) allocatively efficient from the two firms' joint perspective? Explain in one sentence.
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Show answer key & explanations
ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS
Section I
1. (C) The three fundamental questions forced by scarcity.
2. (A) Next-best forgone alternative = the $60 tutoring session. Not $85 (don't add), not $90 (that's the chosen option's value).
3. (E) Specialized resources → increasing opportunity costs → concave PPC.
4. (B) Inside → onto the curve = putting idle resources to work; the curve itself never moved.
5. (D) More capital today builds productive capacity → future PPC shifts out farther.
6. (A) Vex: 1 board = 2 chips; Wren: 1 board = 1.2 chips → Wren's boards are cheaper; Vex's chips (½ board) beat Wren's (5/6 board).
7. (C) Board price must lie between 1.2 (Wren's cost) and 2 chips (Vex's cost) → 1.5 works. (A) and (E) exceed Vex's cost; (B) is below Wren's.
8. (E) Per 24 h: Pia 12 vases or 3 lamps (1 lamp = 4 vases); Quon 8 vases or 4 lamps (1 lamp = 2 vases). Quon's lamps cheaper; Pia's vases cheaper (¼ lamp < ½ lamp).
9. (B) Income ↓ + normal good → demand left → P ↓, Q ↓. (C) is the movement-along trap.
10. (E) Supply right (P↓, Q↑) + demand right (P↑, Q↑) → Q rises; P depends on magnitudes.
11. (D) 200 − 5P = 40 + 3P → 160 = 8P → P = 20; Q = 200 − 100 = 100. Check: 40 + 60 = 100 ✓.
12. (A) Above equilibrium: Qs > Qd = surplus → price falls.
13. (C) %ΔQ = −60/100 = −60%; %ΔP = 4/10 = 40%; |PED| = 60/40 = 1.5 → elastic.
14. (B) Price ↑ and TR ↑ → inelastic (price effect dominates).
15. (D) Positive cross-price elasticity → substitutes.
16. (A) Time to adjust all inputs (and for entry) makes supply responsive.
17. (E) Trades between the ceiling quantity and Q had WTP > cost but can't legally happen at the capped price.
18. (C) Floor above equilibrium → buyers are the short side → Qd rules.
19. (B) The relatively inelastic side (here buyers) bears more of any tax, regardless of legal incidence.
20. (D) DWL = ½ × ΔQ × tax = ½ × 40 × 4 = $80. (C) forgets the ½; (B) is revenue.
21. (A) Demand intercept $40. CS = ½ × 10 × (40 − 30) = $50.
22. (E) MUg/Pg = 6/1 = 6 must equal MUj/Pj = MUj/2 → MUj = 12.
23. (C) TU(3) − TU(2) = 72 − 54 = 18.
24. (B) Diminishing returns is a short-run law — it needs a fixed input to crowd.
25. (D) 56 − 40 = 16.
26. (A) ΔTC/ΔQ = 42/2 = $21.
27. (C) AFC = TFC/Q → falls forever; the others turn upward.
28. (E) ATC = AVC + AFC → the gap is AFC (shrinking but positive).
29. (B) The average-marginal rule: MC pulls each average to its minimum crossing point.
30. (D) All inputs variable + entry/exit possible — capability, not calendar.
31. (A) Output rising more than proportionally to inputs → falling LRATC → economies of scale.
32. (C) Economic profit = 400k − 250k − 130k implicit = $20,000.
33. (E) Tiny market share + identical products → no pricing power.
34. (B) Horizontal firm demand: P = MR = AR. P = MC only at the chosen output (not everywhere), so (C) is wrong.
35. (D) (9 − 6.50) × 400 = $1,000.
36. (A) P ($5) < min AVC ($6): production can't cover even variable cost → shut down; loss = TFC.
37. (C) The entry mechanism, run to its zero-profit endpoint.
38. (B) The price cut on all prior units drags MR below P.
39. (D) Quantity from MR = MC; price from the demand curve: $22.
40. (A) Restrict, raise, and lose surplus — the monopoly signature.
41. (E) DWL = surplus on the unproduced units between Qm and the P = MC output. (A)/(B) are transfers, not losses.
42. (C) Power, segmentation, no-resale (and differing elasticities to exploit) are needed; MC shape is irrelevant.
43. (B) D becomes MR → produce to WTP = MC: efficient output, zero DWL, zero CS.
44. (D) P = ATC → total revenue = total cost → normal profit; some DWL remains (not A/E).
45. (A) With ATC still declining, MC < ATC → P = MC < ATC → per-unit losses → subsidy needed.
46. (E) Tangency equilibrium: zero economic profit but P > MC and excess capacity.
47. (C) Tangency on ATC's downslope → output short of min-ATC scale.
48. (B) X: vs. Low, 16 > 12; vs. High, 6 > 4 → High dominant. Symmetric for Y. (High, High) = (6, 6): neither gains by unilateral switch (6 → 4).
49. (D) Factor demand is derived from the product market — here, passenger travel.
50. (A) MP₅ = 92 − 80 = 12 units; MRP = 12 × $6 = $72.
51. (C) Hire until MRP = wage (MFC in a competitive labor market).
52. (E) Productivity ↑ → MRP ↑ → labor demand right. (A)/(C) are movements along; (B)/(D) shift left.
53. (B) Monopsony: MRP = MFC at lower L, wage read off supply — below MRP.
54. (D) Labor: 30/10 = 3 per $; capital: 60/30 = 2 per $ → shift toward labor until ratios equalize.
55. (A) Producers equate MPB with MPC, ignoring the external cost → overproduction.
56. (C) Pigouvian tax = marginal external cost → MPC rises to MSC → market picks Qopt.
57. (E) Positive externality → underconsumption → subsidize by the external benefit per unit.
58. (B) Non-excludability → free riding → voluntary payment collapses → underprovision.
59. (D) Rival + non-excludable = commons → tragedy of overuse.
60. (A)* Closer to the diagonal = more equal = smaller area A = lower Gini.
MC scoring note: Answer distribution: A×13, B×12, C×12, D×12, E×11 — no letter-clustering.
Section II
FRQ 1 rubric (10 points)
- (a) 4 pts: Downward D with MR below it (twice the slope) (1); upward MC, U-shaped ATC (1); Qm at MR = MC with Pm read up to the demand curve (1); profit rectangle between Pm and ATC(Qm) over Qm units, with Qe marked where MC crosses D (1).
- (b) 2 pts: DWL = triangle between D and MC from Qm to Qe (1); it exists because units between Qm and Qe are valued above their marginal cost yet go unproduced — the monopolist stops where MR (not P) equals MC (1).
- (c) 1 pt: Elastic — at Qm, MR = MC > 0, and positive MR occurs only on the elastic portion of a linear demand curve.
- (d) 2 pts: (i) No change in Qm or Pm — a lump-sum fee is a fixed cost, which affects neither MR nor MC, so the MR = MC intersection is unchanged (1). (ii) Economic profit falls by the amount of the fee (ATC shifts up) (1).
- (e) 1 pt: Output rises (to where P = MC), price falls, and deadweight loss is eliminated.
FRQ 2 rubric (5 points)
- (a) 1 pt: MP₃ = 122 − 90 = 32 bushels; MRP₃ = 32 × $5 = $160.
- (b) 2 pts: 3 workers (1). Hire while MRP ≥ wage: MRP₁ = 250, MRP₂ = 200, MRP₃ = 160 all ≥ $130, but MRP₄ = (146 − 122) × 5 = $120 < $130, so the 4th worker would subtract from profit (1).
- (c) 1 pt: More — 4 workers. At $7.50: MRP₄ = 24 × 7.50 = $180 ≥ 130 but MRP₅ = 16 × 7.50 = $120 < 130. The higher product price raises MRP at every employment level (derived demand).
- (d) 1 pt: Market labor demand (ΣMRP) shifts right → equilibrium wage rises and market employment rises (correctly labeled W/L axes, D_L and S_L, rightward D_L shift).
FRQ 3 rubric (5 points)
- (a) 1 pt: Low is dominant for Chrono: if Tempo prices High, 52 > 40; if Tempo prices Low, 18 > 10 — Low wins either way.
- (b) 2 pts: Nash equilibrium = (Low, Low) with payoffs (18, 18) (1). Given the rival plays Low, switching to High cuts profit from 18 to 10 for either firm — no unilateral deviation pays (1).
- (c) 1 pt: From (High, High) = (40, 40), either firm that secretly cuts to Low jumps to 52 (while the loyal partner falls to 10) — cheating is individually profitable whatever the rival does, so the cartel unravels.
- (d) 1 pt: No — joint profits at (18, 18) = 36 are lower than (40, 40) = 80; individually rational play lands the firms on an outcome jointly worse (the prisoner's dilemma).
Scoring worksheet
| Component |
Raw |
× |
Points |
| Section I (out of 60) |
___ |
1.0 |
___ |
| FRQ 1 (out of 10) |
___ |
1.5 |
___ |
| FRQ 2 (out of 5) |
___ |
1.5 |
___ |
| FRQ 3 (out of 5) |
___ |
1.5 |
___ |
| Composite (out of 90) |
|
|
___ |
Calibration: 68+ ≈ 5 · 55–67 ≈ 4 · 42–54 ≈ 3 · 32–41 ≈ 2. (Bands approximate real AP cut ranges, which vary year to year.)
Diagnostic map
| Missed |
Review lesson |
| 1–5 |
L1 (scarcity, PPC) |
| 6–8 |
L2 (comparative advantage) |
| 9–12 |
L3 (supply & demand) |
| 13–16 |
L4 (elasticity) |
| 17–21 |
L5 (controls, taxes, surplus) |
| 22–23 |
L6 (utility) |
| 24–32 |
L7–L8 (production, costs, profit) |
| 33–37 |
L9 (perfect competition) |
| 38–41 |
L10 (monopoly) |
| 42–45 |
L11 (price discrimination, regulation) |
| 46–48 |
L12 (monopolistic competition, game theory) |
| 49–54 |
L13 (factor markets) |
| 55–59 |
L14 (externalities, public goods) |
| 60 |
L15 (income distribution) |
Final calibration advice: If your composite lands in the 5 band, shift remaining prep to FRQ graph-drawing speed. In the 4 band, autopsy every MC miss by error type — most 4s are one systematic confusion away from a 5 (usually movement-vs-shift or price-from-MR). Below that, re-run the diagnostic map lessons and retake this mock in a week — question-level memory fades fast; model-level understanding is what you're checking.
Score summary
Your running multiple-choice score appears in the bar below. Self-score the free-response section with the rubrics in the answer key, then use the diagnostic table to target review.